000-207 ExamHigh End Taps Solutions Version 5* Exam Number/Code : 000-207* Exam Name : High End Taps Solutions Version 5* Questions and Answers : 152 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-31* Price: $ 120.00
1. When can piping, sensors, and cabling be run from frame to frame in an IBM System Storage TS3500 Tape Library?A. when there is an RPQ to support this configurationB. when there is a fire sprinkler system in the data centerC. when they are placed as prescribed by the Library Planning GuideD. when they are within a shielded waterproof conduit in the data centerAnswer: C
2. A customer is adding a TS3500 Tape Library to an existing tape environment. Which statement is true about the necessity of a Systems Assurance Product Review in this situation?A. A Systems Assurance Product Review must be performed before installation, providing it is the first TS3500 the customer installsB. A Systems Assurance Product Review must be performed before installation, providing it is indicated in the SAPR trigger criteria.C. It is not necessary to perform a Systems Assurance Product Review before installation, providing the customer already has a TS3500.D. It is not necessary to perform a Systems Assurance Product Review before installation, providing the customer’s management approves it.Answer: B
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2010年3月30日星期二
000-210 Exam Objectives
000-210 ExamIBM Storage Networking Solutions,Version 4* Exam Number/Code : 000-210* Exam Name : IBM Storage Networking Solutions,Version 4* Questions and Answers : 107 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-31* Price: $ 92.00
Exam : IBM 000-210Title : IBM Storage Networking Solutions,Version 41. Which product allows a Storage Administrator to set storage utilization alerts for the DS8000, DS4800, SAN Volume Controller, and EMC DMX 2000?A.IBM Total Productivity Center for FabricB.IBM Total Productivity Center for DiskC.IBM Total Productivity Center for DataD.IBM Total Productivity Center for ReplicationAnswer: B
2. A customer installs an IBM N5300. The N5300 needs to be backed up daily using Tivoli Storage Manager Extended Edition (TSM EE). Due to limited bandwidth, the N5300 needs to be backed up without passing data across the LAN.After attaching a tape drive to the N5300, which protocol will be used for the TSM EE server to back up the N5300 and meet the requirements?A.iSCSIB.SnapBackupC.FCPD.NDMPAnswer: D
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Exam : IBM 000-210Title : IBM Storage Networking Solutions,Version 41. Which product allows a Storage Administrator to set storage utilization alerts for the DS8000, DS4800, SAN Volume Controller, and EMC DMX 2000?A.IBM Total Productivity Center for FabricB.IBM Total Productivity Center for DiskC.IBM Total Productivity Center for DataD.IBM Total Productivity Center for ReplicationAnswer: B
2. A customer installs an IBM N5300. The N5300 needs to be backed up daily using Tivoli Storage Manager Extended Edition (TSM EE). Due to limited bandwidth, the N5300 needs to be backed up without passing data across the LAN.After attaching a tape drive to the N5300, which protocol will be used for the TSM EE server to back up the N5300 and meet the requirements?A.iSCSIB.SnapBackupC.FCPD.NDMPAnswer: D
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000-217 questions and answers
000-217 ExamTest 217, WebSphere Commerce V6.0. Application Development* Exam Number/Code : 000-217* Exam Name : Test 217, WebSphere Commerce V6.0. Application Development* Questions and Answers : 52 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-31* Price: $ 120.00
Exam : IBM 000-217Title : Test 217, WebSphere Commerce V6.0. Application Development1. A new view has been created in a consumer direct store in the development environment. It is now ready to be tested in the development environment. The JSP file for the page has been created and placed in the proper directory, the struts configuration has been updated correctly, and the struts registry has been refreshed. When the correct URL is entered for the view in the web browser, an exception is thrown and the view is not displayed. What step was missed above and the likely cause of this error?A. The cache registry was not refreshed.B. An access control policy for the view needs to be loaded using the Organization Admin Console.C. An access control policy for the view needs to be created and loaded using acpload.bat.D. An access control policy for the view needs to be created and loaded using the WebSphere Administration Console.Answer: C
2. The recommended method for retrieving and displaying error messages passed to a view from a controller command is to use a:A. StoreErrorDataBeanB. ResourceBundleC. TypedProperty exception dataD. error view nameAnswer: A
Section 1 – WebSphere Commerce Toolkit Development Environment (13%)Install the development toolConfigure the development environmentConfigure tracingPackage store customizationsPublish starter storesEnable workspaces
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Exam : IBM 000-217Title : Test 217, WebSphere Commerce V6.0. Application Development1. A new view has been created in a consumer direct store in the development environment. It is now ready to be tested in the development environment. The JSP file for the page has been created and placed in the proper directory, the struts configuration has been updated correctly, and the struts registry has been refreshed. When the correct URL is entered for the view in the web browser, an exception is thrown and the view is not displayed. What step was missed above and the likely cause of this error?A. The cache registry was not refreshed.B. An access control policy for the view needs to be loaded using the Organization Admin Console.C. An access control policy for the view needs to be created and loaded using acpload.bat.D. An access control policy for the view needs to be created and loaded using the WebSphere Administration Console.Answer: C
2. The recommended method for retrieving and displaying error messages passed to a view from a controller command is to use a:A. StoreErrorDataBeanB. ResourceBundleC. TypedProperty exception dataD. error view nameAnswer: A
Section 1 – WebSphere Commerce Toolkit Development Environment (13%)Install the development toolConfigure the development environmentConfigure tracingPackage store customizationsPublish starter storesEnable workspaces
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000-223 practice tests
000-223 ExamIBM System p Administrator* Exam Number/Code : 000-223* Exam Name : IBM System p Administrator* Questions and Answers : 62 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-31* Price: $ 78.00
1. An administrator needs to be able to list the number and size of backup sets on a tape. Which of the following procedures accomplish this?A. Use the tcopy /dev/rmtO.l until an end-of-tape error notification is received.B. Use the cpio -idmv < /dev/rmtO.l until an end-of-tape error notification is received.C. Use the tar -tvf /dev/rmtO.l repeatedly until an end-of-tape error notification is received.D. Use the dd if=/dev/rmt0.1 bs=128k count=EOT until an end-of-tape error notification is received.Answer: A
2. How can a directory be excluded from a mksysb backup?A. Put an entry in the /etc/exclude.rootvg file.B. Put an entry in the /etc/mksysb.exclude file.C. Remove the directory’s entry from the mksysb /image.data file.D. Remove the directory’s entry from the /var/adm/ras/bosinst.data file.Answer: A
The 000-223 customer certification validates the ability to plan, install, support, troubleshoot, and manage problems for a POWER 6 System p installation. The system administrator manages and support projects and end users, and oversees day to day operations of an IBM System p.The IBM 000-223 successful certified candidate has a recommended 12 – 18 months administering an IBM System p. They are familiar with current and reasonably current operation environments (servers, operating systems, and features).
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1. An administrator needs to be able to list the number and size of backup sets on a tape. Which of the following procedures accomplish this?A. Use the tcopy /dev/rmtO.l until an end-of-tape error notification is received.B. Use the cpio -idmv < /dev/rmtO.l until an end-of-tape error notification is received.C. Use the tar -tvf /dev/rmtO.l repeatedly until an end-of-tape error notification is received.D. Use the dd if=/dev/rmt0.1 bs=128k count=EOT until an end-of-tape error notification is received.Answer: A
2. How can a directory be excluded from a mksysb backup?A. Put an entry in the /etc/exclude.rootvg file.B. Put an entry in the /etc/mksysb.exclude file.C. Remove the directory’s entry from the mksysb /image.data file.D. Remove the directory’s entry from the /var/adm/ras/bosinst.data file.Answer: A
The 000-223 customer certification validates the ability to plan, install, support, troubleshoot, and manage problems for a POWER 6 System p installation. The system administrator manages and support projects and end users, and oversees day to day operations of an IBM System p.The IBM 000-223 successful certified candidate has a recommended 12 – 18 months administering an IBM System p. They are familiar with current and reasonably current operation environments (servers, operating systems, and features).
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000-374 study materials
000-374 ExamIBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 System Administration* Exam Number/Code : 000-374* Exam Name : IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0 System Administration* Questions and Answers : 112 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-31* Price: $ 138.00
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000-378 questions and answers
000-378 ExamIBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances, Firmware V3.7.3* Exam Number/Code : 000-378* Exam Name : IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances, Firmware V3.7.3* Questions and Answers : 76 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-31* Price: $ 198.00
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IBM 000-378 test consists of seven sections containing a total of approximately 76 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.Section 1 – Basic Technical Domain Knowledge (17%)Section 2 – General Product Knowledge (21%)Section 3 – Basic Administration (12%)Section 4 – Use Case: Security (16%)Section 5 – Use Case: Integration (14%)Section 6 – Governance (8%)Section 7 – Troubleshooting (12%)
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IBM 000-378 test consists of seven sections containing a total of approximately 76 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.Section 1 – Basic Technical Domain Knowledge (17%)Section 2 – General Product Knowledge (21%)Section 3 – Basic Administration (12%)Section 4 – Use Case: Security (16%)Section 5 – Use Case: Integration (14%)Section 6 – Governance (8%)Section 7 – Troubleshooting (12%)
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000-415 exam training
000-415 ExamIBM WebSphere IIS DataStage Enterprise Edition v7.5* Exam Number/Code : 000-415* Exam Name : IBM WebSphere IIS DataStage Enterprise Edition v7.5* Questions and Answers : 141 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-31* Price: $ 120.001. You have a parallel job that does not scale beyond two nodes. After investigation you find that the data has been partitioned on gender and you have an Aggregator stage that is accumulating totals based on gender using a sort method. Which technique should you use to allow the job to scale?A. Add an additional column for partitioning to result in additional data partitions.B. Change the aggregation method to hash to eliminate the blocking sort operation.C. Change the preserve partitioning option on the stage ahead of the aggregator to clear partitioning.D. Change the partitioning key to one that results in more partitions, add a second Aggregator stage that re-aggregates based on gender.Answer: D
2. How are transaction commit operations handled by the DB2/UDB Enterprise stage?A. Commit operations can be defined globally by setting APT_TRANSACTION_ROWS variable.B. Commit operations can only be defined by the number of rows since the start of a transaction.C. Commit operations can only be defined by the number of seconds since the start of a transaction.D. Transaction commits can be controlled by defining the number of rows per transaction or by a specific time period defined by the number of seconds elapsed between commits.Answer: D
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2. How are transaction commit operations handled by the DB2/UDB Enterprise stage?A. Commit operations can be defined globally by setting APT_TRANSACTION_ROWS variable.B. Commit operations can only be defined by the number of rows since the start of a transaction.C. Commit operations can only be defined by the number of seconds since the start of a transaction.D. Transaction commits can be controlled by defining the number of rows per transaction or by a specific time period defined by the number of seconds elapsed between commits.Answer: D
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000-433 practice exams
000-433 ExamIBM Tivoli Storage Manager V5.5 Implementation* Exam Number/Code : 000-433* Exam Name : IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V5.5 Implementation* Questions and Answers : 266 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-31* Price: $ 98.00
1. Which installation authority is required to install the Tivoli Integrated Solutions Console on the AIX platform?A. bin userB. root userC. non-root userD. administrative userAnswer: B
2. A customer has a requirement to reduce the costs of their off-site vaulting. The customer wants to eliminate costs associated with the manual labor of moving tapes with secure data to a second site.How can Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V5.5 best meet the customers requirement?A. by using electronic vaulting of the TSM dataB. by creating the secondary tapes and leaving them on-siteC. by using a hardware disk solution to mirror the client data to the remote locationD. by using TSM to restore the data that was backed up in the primary site to the secondary siteAnswer: A
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1. Which installation authority is required to install the Tivoli Integrated Solutions Console on the AIX platform?A. bin userB. root userC. non-root userD. administrative userAnswer: B
2. A customer has a requirement to reduce the costs of their off-site vaulting. The customer wants to eliminate costs associated with the manual labor of moving tapes with secure data to a second site.How can Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V5.5 best meet the customers requirement?A. by using electronic vaulting of the TSM dataB. by creating the secondary tapes and leaving them on-siteC. by using a hardware disk solution to mirror the client data to the remote locationD. by using TSM to restore the data that was backed up in the primary site to the secondary siteAnswer: A
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000-443 exam answers
000-443 Examdb2 content manager v8.3* Exam Number/Code : 000-443* Exam Name : db2 content manager v8.3* Questions and Answers : 128 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-31* Price: $ 120.00
1. An Item Type must contain which of the following?A. A root componentB. A resource componentC. At least one child componentD. An item constructor componentAnswer: A
2. A new user has just been added to the Content Manager system. The administrator wants to assign this userid a privilege set in an already existing access control list. The userid is not shown in the access control list modification panel. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?A. The access control list is already in use and cannot be modified anymore.B. The userid has an assigned privilege set which includes the ItemSuperAccess privilege.C. The password for the new userid is expired immediately, and therefore, this userid cannot be accessed.D. The Content Manager System Administration client needs to be restarted after a userid is created to refresh the cache.Answer: B
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1. An Item Type must contain which of the following?A. A root componentB. A resource componentC. At least one child componentD. An item constructor componentAnswer: A
2. A new user has just been added to the Content Manager system. The administrator wants to assign this userid a privilege set in an already existing access control list. The userid is not shown in the access control list modification panel. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?A. The access control list is already in use and cannot be modified anymore.B. The userid has an assigned privilege set which includes the ItemSuperAccess privilege.C. The password for the new userid is expired immediately, and therefore, this userid cannot be accessed.D. The Content Manager System Administration client needs to be restarted after a userid is created to refresh the cache.Answer: B
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000-530 Practice Test
000-530 ExamIBM Internet Security Systems Technical Test v1* Exam Number/Code : 000-530* Exam Name : IBM Internet Security Systems Technical Test v1* Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-31* Price: $ 122.00
1. Which of the following is the best high-level summary of ISS to present to a management-level audience?A. ISS products include network IPS appliances, Multi-Function Security appliances, desktop and server protection, vulnerability assessment, and SiteProtector management.B. ISS uses stateful deep-packet inspection and buffer overflow exploit prevention to provide zero-day exploit prevention.C. ISS uniquely combines security research, product development, and managed security services to deliver the optimum combination of cost effectiveness and pre-emptive protection.D. ISS provides all the capabilities in the Network, Server, and Endpoint component of the IBM Security Framework.Answer: C
2. Which of the following would be the most appropriate design for a client who requires intrusion detection for an active-active pair of network segments?A. A single Proventia Network IPS appliance in passive monitoring modeB. A pair of Proventia Network IPS appliances in HA protection modeC. A pair of Proventia Network IPS appliances in HA protection mode with power-failure bypass unitsD. A pair of Proventia Network IPS appliances in HA assessment modeAnswer: A
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1. Which of the following is the best high-level summary of ISS to present to a management-level audience?A. ISS products include network IPS appliances, Multi-Function Security appliances, desktop and server protection, vulnerability assessment, and SiteProtector management.B. ISS uses stateful deep-packet inspection and buffer overflow exploit prevention to provide zero-day exploit prevention.C. ISS uniquely combines security research, product development, and managed security services to deliver the optimum combination of cost effectiveness and pre-emptive protection.D. ISS provides all the capabilities in the Network, Server, and Endpoint component of the IBM Security Framework.Answer: C
2. Which of the following would be the most appropriate design for a client who requires intrusion detection for an active-active pair of network segments?A. A single Proventia Network IPS appliance in passive monitoring modeB. A pair of Proventia Network IPS appliances in HA protection modeC. A pair of Proventia Network IPS appliances in HA protection mode with power-failure bypass unitsD. A pair of Proventia Network IPS appliances in HA assessment modeAnswer: A
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2010年3月29日星期一
642-845 free demo
642-845 ExamOptimizing Converged Cisco Networks* Exam Number/Code : 642-845* Exam Name : Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks* Questions and Answers : 152 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-30* Price: $ 89.00
1. Which two QoS statements are true about the use of the SDM QoS wizard? (Choose two.)A. Business-critical traffic includes VoIP and voice signaling packets.B. SDM can be used to configure a basic QoS policy for incoming traffic on WAN interfaces and IPsec tunnels.C. SDM can provide QoS for real-time traffic and business-critical traffic.D. SDM creates a custom-queuing (CQ) or a priority-queuing (PQ) policy.E. SDM creates a low latency queuing (LLQ) service policy with its associated classes.F. When allocating bandwidth, values can be entered in either bandwidth percentage or kilobytes per second (kBps).Answer: CE
2. Which two statements regarding the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)A. To support fault and policy reporting, the WLSE requires a Wireless Control System (WCS).B. When WLSE detects an AP failure, it automatically increases the power and cell coverage of nearby APs.C. WLSE requires the 2700 location appliance to offer location tracking.D. WLSE can locate rogue APs and automatically shut them down.E. WLSE configuration is done using the command line interface (CLI) or a WEB based template.Answer: BD
Implement AutoQoS•Explain the functions and operations of AutoQoS.•Describe the SDM QoS Wizard.•Configure, verify, and torubleshoot AutoQoS implementations (i.e., MQC).Implement WLAN security and management•Describe and Configure wireless security on Cisco Clients and APs (e.g., SSID, WEP, LEAP, etc.).•Describe basic wireless management (e.g., WLSE and WCS). Configure and verify basic WCS configuration (i.e., login, add/review controller/AP status, security, and import/review maps).•Describe and configure WLAN QoS.
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1. Which two QoS statements are true about the use of the SDM QoS wizard? (Choose two.)A. Business-critical traffic includes VoIP and voice signaling packets.B. SDM can be used to configure a basic QoS policy for incoming traffic on WAN interfaces and IPsec tunnels.C. SDM can provide QoS for real-time traffic and business-critical traffic.D. SDM creates a custom-queuing (CQ) or a priority-queuing (PQ) policy.E. SDM creates a low latency queuing (LLQ) service policy with its associated classes.F. When allocating bandwidth, values can be entered in either bandwidth percentage or kilobytes per second (kBps).Answer: CE
2. Which two statements regarding the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)A. To support fault and policy reporting, the WLSE requires a Wireless Control System (WCS).B. When WLSE detects an AP failure, it automatically increases the power and cell coverage of nearby APs.C. WLSE requires the 2700 location appliance to offer location tracking.D. WLSE can locate rogue APs and automatically shut them down.E. WLSE configuration is done using the command line interface (CLI) or a WEB based template.Answer: BD
Implement AutoQoS•Explain the functions and operations of AutoQoS.•Describe the SDM QoS Wizard.•Configure, verify, and torubleshoot AutoQoS implementations (i.e., MQC).Implement WLAN security and management•Describe and Configure wireless security on Cisco Clients and APs (e.g., SSID, WEP, LEAP, etc.).•Describe basic wireless management (e.g., WLSE and WCS). Configure and verify basic WCS configuration (i.e., login, add/review controller/AP status, security, and import/review maps).•Describe and configure WLAN QoS.
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642-873 training tools
642-873 ExamDesigning Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)* Exam Number/Code : 642-873* Exam Name : Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)* Questions and Answers : 219 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-30* Price: $ 69.00
1. What two choices can you make when redundancy is required from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose two.)A. multiple Frame Relay PVCsB. dual Wan links to the regional officeC. dual Wan links to another branch officeD. single links – one to the regional office and one to another branch officeAnswer: BD
2. You are the network consultant from Cisco.com. Please point out which Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?A. FlexLinksB. loop-free UC. looped squareD. looped triangleAnswer: B
The 642-873 ARCH Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures Exam is the exam associated with the CCDP certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the latest development in network design and technologies, including network infrastructure, intelligent network services and converged network solutions. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the ARCH Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures course.
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1. What two choices can you make when redundancy is required from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose two.)A. multiple Frame Relay PVCsB. dual Wan links to the regional officeC. dual Wan links to another branch officeD. single links – one to the regional office and one to another branch officeAnswer: BD
2. You are the network consultant from Cisco.com. Please point out which Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?A. FlexLinksB. loop-free UC. looped squareD. looped triangleAnswer: B
The 642-873 ARCH Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures Exam is the exam associated with the CCDP certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the latest development in network design and technologies, including network infrastructure, intelligent network services and converged network solutions. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the ARCH Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures course.
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642-892 answers
642-892 ExamComposite Exam* Exam Number/Code : 642-892* Exam Name : Composite Exam* Questions and Answers : 229 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-30* Price: $ 98.00
1. What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.B. The network was defined by a static route.C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.D. The network was learned via EBGP.E. The network was learned via IBGP.Answer: AC
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.Answer: CD
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1. What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.B. The network was defined by a static route.C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.D. The network was learned via EBGP.E. The network was learned via IBGP.Answer: AC
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.Answer: CD
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642-901 study material
642-901 ExamBuilding Scalable Cisco Internetworks* Exam Number/Code : 642-901* Exam Name : Building Scalable Cisco Internetworks* Questions and Answers : 247 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-30* Price: $ 80.00
1. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements accurately describe the result of applying the exhibited route map? (Choose three.)A. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.B. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes.C. The map redistributes into EIGRP all routes that match the pfx prefix list and the five metric values40000, 1000, 255, 1, and 1500.D. The map prohibits the redistribution of all external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.E. All routes that do no match clauses 10 and 20 of the route map are redistributed with their tags set to 8.F. The map permits the redistribution of all type 1 external OSPF routes.Answer: AEF
2. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default route to its neighbors?A. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0B. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1C. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1D. R4(config-router)# default-information originateAnswer: A
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1. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements accurately describe the result of applying the exhibited route map? (Choose three.)A. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.B. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes.C. The map redistributes into EIGRP all routes that match the pfx prefix list and the five metric values40000, 1000, 255, 1, and 1500.D. The map prohibits the redistribution of all external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.E. All routes that do no match clauses 10 and 20 of the route map are redistributed with their tags set to 8.F. The map permits the redistribution of all type 1 external OSPF routes.Answer: AEF
2. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default route to its neighbors?A. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0B. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1C. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1D. R4(config-router)# default-information originateAnswer: A
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642-974 practice exams
642-974 ExamData Center Networking Infrastructure Support Specialist* Exam Number/Code : 642-974* Exam Name : Data Center Networking Infrastructure Support Specialist* Questions and Answers : 118 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-30* Price: $ 108.00
1. You work as a Cisco engineer in the Data Center of TestInside.com. With your experience, which two functions will be executed if install all command ? (Choose two.)A. causes a switchover back to the originally active supervisor moduleB. reloads the standby supervisor module with the new Cisco NX-OS softwareC. copies the kickstart and system images to the standby supervisor moduleD. backs up the currently active software image before upgrading itAnswer: BC
2. Cisco NX-OS is a data center-class operating system that is modular, resilient, and built for quality of service. So in your opinion, how many paths can be considered in NX-OS for equal-cost multipathing?A. 6B. 10C. 16D. 18Answer: C
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1. You work as a Cisco engineer in the Data Center of TestInside.com. With your experience, which two functions will be executed if install all command ? (Choose two.)A. causes a switchover back to the originally active supervisor moduleB. reloads the standby supervisor module with the new Cisco NX-OS softwareC. copies the kickstart and system images to the standby supervisor moduleD. backs up the currently active software image before upgrading itAnswer: BC
2. Cisco NX-OS is a data center-class operating system that is modular, resilient, and built for quality of service. So in your opinion, how many paths can be considered in NX-OS for equal-cost multipathing?A. 6B. 10C. 16D. 18Answer: C
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646-046 Training tool
646-046 ExamAdvanced Routing and Switching for Account Managers* Exam Number/Code : 646-046* Exam Name : Advanced Routing and Switching for Account Managers* Questions and Answers : 50 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-30* Price: $ 89.001. Which three best describe the customer benefits of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach? (Choose three.)A. improve the skill sets of its staff membersB. increase the value of and return on investment for its networksC. increase network staff productivityD. increase the amount of server room rack spaceE. improve network availability, resiliency, security, and scalabilityF. increase the amount of time required to integrate network changesAnswer: BCE
2. Your customer is concerned about ease of management. What two facts could you use to explain to the customer how Cisco IOS improves ease of management? (Choose two.)A. Cisco IOS Software includes an EEM that provides CPU usage detection and a watchdog mechanism.B. Cisco IOS Software includes software upgrades that enable the creation of individual paths.C. Cisco IOS Software determines the best recovery action, based on high availability, when there is an error in the modular process.D. Cisco IOS Software supports more than 20 independent processes in addition to the standard Cisco IOS Software features.E. Cisco IOS Software allows administrators to use Tool Command Language to develop policy scripts that can detect a defined event.Answer: AE
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2. Your customer is concerned about ease of management. What two facts could you use to explain to the customer how Cisco IOS improves ease of management? (Choose two.)A. Cisco IOS Software includes an EEM that provides CPU usage detection and a watchdog mechanism.B. Cisco IOS Software includes software upgrades that enable the creation of individual paths.C. Cisco IOS Software determines the best recovery action, based on high availability, when there is an error in the modular process.D. Cisco IOS Software supports more than 20 independent processes in addition to the standard Cisco IOS Software features.E. Cisco IOS Software allows administrators to use Tool Command Language to develop policy scripts that can detect a defined event.Answer: AE
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646-204 exam materials
646-204 ExamCisco Sales Expert* Exam Number/Code : 646-204* Exam Name : Cisco Sales Expert* Questions and Answers : 100 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-30* Price: $ 79.00
1. Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal, low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?A. Small deploymentsB. Large deploymentsC. Medium deploymentsD. Commercial deploymentsE. Financial deploymentsAnswer: A
2. On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?A. Independent voice, video, and data networksB. Voice networks onlyC. A single, joined voice, video, and data networkD. Data networks onlyE. Wireless networks onlyAnswer: C
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1. Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal, low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?A. Small deploymentsB. Large deploymentsC. Medium deploymentsD. Commercial deploymentsE. Financial deploymentsAnswer: A
2. On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?A. Independent voice, video, and data networksB. Voice networks onlyC. A single, joined voice, video, and data networkD. Data networks onlyE. Wireless networks onlyAnswer: C
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646-223 Exam Objectives
646-223 ExamUnified Communications Express AM* Exam Number/Code : 646-223* Exam Name : Unified Communications Express AM* Questions and Answers : 61 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-30* Price: $ 112.00
1. How does Cisco ensure security for a Cisco Unified Communications solution?Select the best response.A. Cisco uses proprietary protocols that protect against known vulnerabilities, such as virus attacks, service attacks, and hackers.B. Cisco has a set of design guidelines and software services that, when implemented, will secure the network against known vulnerabilities, such as virus attacks, service attacks, and hackers.C. A Cisco Unified Communications solution is always more secure than traditional phone systems.D. Because a Cisco Unified Communications solution is isolated from the data network, it protects against known vulnerabilities, such as virus attacks, service attacks, and hackers.Answer: B
2. Which of these is not a feature of Cisco Unified CallConnector Mobility?Select the best response.A. single-number reachB. single voice-mail boxC. user-customizable rules for routingD. integration with legacy PBX systemsE. Reach at Any PhoneF. integration with PresenceAnswer: D
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1. How does Cisco ensure security for a Cisco Unified Communications solution?Select the best response.A. Cisco uses proprietary protocols that protect against known vulnerabilities, such as virus attacks, service attacks, and hackers.B. Cisco has a set of design guidelines and software services that, when implemented, will secure the network against known vulnerabilities, such as virus attacks, service attacks, and hackers.C. A Cisco Unified Communications solution is always more secure than traditional phone systems.D. Because a Cisco Unified Communications solution is isolated from the data network, it protects against known vulnerabilities, such as virus attacks, service attacks, and hackers.Answer: B
2. Which of these is not a feature of Cisco Unified CallConnector Mobility?Select the best response.A. single-number reachB. single voice-mail boxC. user-customizable rules for routingD. integration with legacy PBX systemsE. Reach at Any PhoneF. integration with PresenceAnswer: D
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646-230 Training Tools
646-230 ExamAdvanced Unified Communications AM* Exam Number/Code : 646-230* Exam Name : Advanced Unified Communications AM* Questions and Answers : 61 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-30* Price: $ 79.00
1. A company’s mission is to support its customers’ technical needs. Its consultants work from home or on site. They must often work in teams to exchange information about new products and implementations.Choose the Cisco Unified Communications tool, features, and functions that will best support this company’s goal.A. Unified Messaging, delivering every voice, email, and fax message into a single inboxB. Presence, providing information about consultants, such as availability and busy statusC. Collaboration, bringing together voice, video, and web conferencingD. Contact Center solutions, delivering intelligent contact routing, desktop and telephony integration, and multichannel contact managementAnswer: C
2. Which two statements regarding the advantages and benefits of security implementations in Cisco Unified Communications solutions are true? (Choose two.)A. The Cisco 1861 Integrate Services Router provides built-in security with hardware encryption and decryption.B. Voice clients are critical elements in the Cisco Self-Defending Network, which integrates security throughout all aspects of the network.C. Cisco Unified IP phones provide Extensible Markup Language (XML) capabilities to extend security functions on a phone.D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is runs on Linux in order to protect against vulnerabilities and attacks.Answer: AB
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1. A company’s mission is to support its customers’ technical needs. Its consultants work from home or on site. They must often work in teams to exchange information about new products and implementations.Choose the Cisco Unified Communications tool, features, and functions that will best support this company’s goal.A. Unified Messaging, delivering every voice, email, and fax message into a single inboxB. Presence, providing information about consultants, such as availability and busy statusC. Collaboration, bringing together voice, video, and web conferencingD. Contact Center solutions, delivering intelligent contact routing, desktop and telephony integration, and multichannel contact managementAnswer: C
2. Which two statements regarding the advantages and benefits of security implementations in Cisco Unified Communications solutions are true? (Choose two.)A. The Cisco 1861 Integrate Services Router provides built-in security with hardware encryption and decryption.B. Voice clients are critical elements in the Cisco Self-Defending Network, which integrates security throughout all aspects of the network.C. Cisco Unified IP phones provide Extensible Markup Language (XML) capabilities to extend security functions on a phone.D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is runs on Linux in order to protect against vulnerabilities and attacks.Answer: AB
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2010年3月28日星期日
BI0-210 Training Tools
BI0-210 ExamIBM Cognos 8 BI Professional* Exam Number/Code : BI0-210* Exam Name : IBM Cognos 8 BI Professional* Questions and Answers : 68 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-29* Price: $ 122.00
1. Which of the following BEST describes the relationship or differences between Iterative Approach and Cognos SIM?A. The Iterative Approach is a specific technique used to iterate through the Design phase.B. The Iterative Approach is a series of steps defined in the Analysis and Development phases of Cognos SIM.C. The Iterative Approach is a philosophy of development while Cognos SIM is a collection of tasks, documents, and techniques to guide development.D. Cognos SIM is the current Cognos development standard and is intended to replace the Iterative Approach for development of BI applications.Answer: C2. Which of the following statements is true about the Waterfall Approach?A. The five steps in the process are considered valid for BI software development projects.B. Each step is performed in sequence but you return to previous steps at specific points in the development cycle.C. It is designed so that requirements that are not discovered in the Analysis step will cascade out during the design phase.D. Project management tools no longer encourage the Waterfall Approach.Answer: A
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1. Which of the following BEST describes the relationship or differences between Iterative Approach and Cognos SIM?A. The Iterative Approach is a specific technique used to iterate through the Design phase.B. The Iterative Approach is a series of steps defined in the Analysis and Development phases of Cognos SIM.C. The Iterative Approach is a philosophy of development while Cognos SIM is a collection of tasks, documents, and techniques to guide development.D. Cognos SIM is the current Cognos development standard and is intended to replace the Iterative Approach for development of BI applications.Answer: C2. Which of the following statements is true about the Waterfall Approach?A. The five steps in the process are considered valid for BI software development projects.B. Each step is performed in sequence but you return to previous steps at specific points in the development cycle.C. It is designed so that requirements that are not discovered in the Analysis step will cascade out during the design phase.D. Project management tools no longer encourage the Waterfall Approach.Answer: A
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COG-125 practice test
COG-125 ExamIBM Cognos 8 BI Data Warehouse Developer* Exam Number/Code : COG-125* Exam Name : IBM Cognos 8 BI Data Warehouse Developer* Questions and Answers : 84 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-29* Price: $ 120.00
1. A developer wants to create a connection to a published Framework Manager package in a Data Manager catalog. Before this connection can be created successfully, what must the developer do?A. Add an LDAP or NTLM namespace in Cognos Configuration.B. Configure Data Manager to access the Cognos 8 Gateway and Dispatcher URLs.C. Log on to Cognos Connection as a user in the Data Manager Authors role.D. Create a data source connection to the Cognos 8 data store.Answer: B
2. What distinguishes an OLTP system from a data warehouse?A. An OLTP system captures and processes original business transactions, while a data warehouse does not.B. A data warehouse captures and processes original business transactions, while an OLTP system does not.C. An OLTP system is used to transform, clean, and combine operational data, while a data warehouse is not.D. A data warehouse is fully normalized, while an OLTP system is fully denormalized.Answer: A
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1. A developer wants to create a connection to a published Framework Manager package in a Data Manager catalog. Before this connection can be created successfully, what must the developer do?A. Add an LDAP or NTLM namespace in Cognos Configuration.B. Configure Data Manager to access the Cognos 8 Gateway and Dispatcher URLs.C. Log on to Cognos Connection as a user in the Data Manager Authors role.D. Create a data source connection to the Cognos 8 data store.Answer: B
2. What distinguishes an OLTP system from a data warehouse?A. An OLTP system captures and processes original business transactions, while a data warehouse does not.B. A data warehouse captures and processes original business transactions, while an OLTP system does not.C. An OLTP system is used to transform, clean, and combine operational data, while a data warehouse is not.D. A data warehouse is fully normalized, while an OLTP system is fully denormalized.Answer: A
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COG-142 Questions & Answers
COG-142 ExamIBM Cognos 8 BI Scorecard Developer* Exam Number/Code : COG-142* Exam Name : IBM Cognos 8 BI Scorecard Developer* Questions and Answers : 75 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-29* Price: $ 120.00
1. Which of the following sets of metrics would be MOST appropriate for the balanced scorecard model?A. Number of new hires, Turnover rate, Head count, Average ageB. Revenue, customer satisifaction, product quality, percent of employees trainedC. Sales, revenue per sq ft, product quality, number of returnsD. Global revenue, revenue for services, revenue for product sales, revenue for supportAnswer: B
2. The data that needs to be populated in the metric store requires consolidation and data cleansing from various data sources. What is the MOST appropriate data loading technique to accomplish this?A. Manual entryB. Metric DesignerC. SQL scripts (structured query language)D. An ETL tool (extraction, transformation, and loading)Answer: D
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1. Which of the following sets of metrics would be MOST appropriate for the balanced scorecard model?A. Number of new hires, Turnover rate, Head count, Average ageB. Revenue, customer satisifaction, product quality, percent of employees trainedC. Sales, revenue per sq ft, product quality, number of returnsD. Global revenue, revenue for services, revenue for product sales, revenue for supportAnswer: B
2. The data that needs to be populated in the metric store requires consolidation and data cleansing from various data sources. What is the MOST appropriate data loading technique to accomplish this?A. Manual entryB. Metric DesignerC. SQL scripts (structured query language)D. An ETL tool (extraction, transformation, and loading)Answer: D
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IBM COG-180 Practice Test
COG-180 ExamIBM Cognos 8 BI Professional* Exam Number/Code : COG-180* Exam Name : IBM Cognos 8 BI Professional* Questions and Answers : 66 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-29* Price: $ 122.00
1. Which of the following MOST clearly states the value of using a methodology?A. It provides a philosophy of development that maximizes return on investment.B. It helps consultants progress in a systematic way to insure all critical steps are addressed.C. It helps project managers estimate the cost and effort in developing a solution.D. It ensures that early mistakes are avoided in developing a solution.Answer: B
2. Which of the following BEST describes the relationship or differences between Iterative Approach and Cognos SIM?A. The Iterative Approach is a specific technique used to iterate through the Design phase.B. The Iterative Approach is a series of steps defined in the Analysis and Development phases of Cognos SIM.C. The Iterative Approach is a philosophy of development while Cognos SIM is a collection of tasks, documents, and techniques to guide development.D. Cognos SIM is the current Cognos development standard and is intended to replace the Iterative Approach for development of BI applications.Answer: C
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1. Which of the following MOST clearly states the value of using a methodology?A. It provides a philosophy of development that maximizes return on investment.B. It helps consultants progress in a systematic way to insure all critical steps are addressed.C. It helps project managers estimate the cost and effort in developing a solution.D. It ensures that early mistakes are avoided in developing a solution.Answer: B
2. Which of the following BEST describes the relationship or differences between Iterative Approach and Cognos SIM?A. The Iterative Approach is a specific technique used to iterate through the Design phase.B. The Iterative Approach is a series of steps defined in the Analysis and Development phases of Cognos SIM.C. The Iterative Approach is a philosophy of development while Cognos SIM is a collection of tasks, documents, and techniques to guide development.D. Cognos SIM is the current Cognos development standard and is intended to replace the Iterative Approach for development of BI applications.Answer: C
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COG-310 exam answers
COG-310 ExamIBM Cognos TM1 Developer* Exam Number/Code : COG-310* Exam Name : IBM Cognos TM1 Developer* Questions and Answers : 63 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-29* Price: $ 122.00
1. Which of the following element types identifies the lowest level in a dimension hierarchy?A. StringB. AttributeC. ConsolidationD. SimpleAnswer: D
2. An application developer needs to know the last time the Sales Forecast cube was updated. The cube file, including the date and time stamp, can be found in which of the following locations?A. In the data directory.B. In the data file.C. On the web server.D. On the admin server.Answer: A
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1. Which of the following element types identifies the lowest level in a dimension hierarchy?A. StringB. AttributeC. ConsolidationD. SimpleAnswer: D
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CP0-112 braindumps
CP0-112 ExamCongons 8 Planning Application Consultant* Exam Number/Code : CP0-112* Exam Name : Congons 8 Planning Application Consultant* Questions and Answers : 93 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-29* Price: $ 122.00
1. When publishing data that will be reported on, why is it important for an administrator to carefully select the dimension for publish?A. By selecting an appropriate dimension for publish, the administrator may not have to run Go to Production.B. The dimension for publish is the D-List whose items become columns in the fact table.C. The dimension for publish is the D-List whose items become rows in the fact table.D. If the selected dimension for publish contains calculations it will not successfully publish.Answer: B
2. In the Contributor Administration Console, the Generate Framework Manager model administration extension creates a Framework Manager model from what type of data source?A. A view only published data sourceB. A table only published data sourceC. A Contributor application data sourceD. An Analyst application data sourceAnswer: B
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2. In the Contributor Administration Console, the Generate Framework Manager model administration extension creates a Framework Manager model from what type of data source?A. A view only published data sourceB. A table only published data sourceC. A Contributor application data sourceD. An Analyst application data sourceAnswer: B
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DU0-001 Training Tools
DU0-001 ExamData Center University Associate Certification* Exam Number/Code : DU0-001* Exam Name : Data Center University Associate Certification* Questions and Answers : 325 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-29* Price: $ 350.00
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EC0-349 Training Tools
EC0-349 ExamComputer Hacking Forensic Investigator* Exam Number/Code : EC0-349* Exam Name : Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator* Questions and Answers : 186 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-29* Price: $ 125.00
1. You are working as an independent computer forensics investigator and receive a call from a systems administrator for a local school system requestingyour assistance. One of the students at the local high school is suspected of downloading inappropriate images from the Internet to a PC in the Computer Lab.When you arrive at the school, the systems administrator hands you a hard drive and tells you that he made a simple backup copy of the hard drive in the PCand put it on this drive and requests that you examine the drive for evidence of the suspected images. You inform him that a simple backup copy will notprovide deleted files or recover file fragments. What type of copy do you need to make to ensure that the evidence found is complete and admissible in futureproceedings?A.Bit-stream copyB.Robust copyC.Full backup copyD.Incremental backup copyAnswer: A2. Which forensic investigating concept trails the whole incident from how the attack began to how the victim was affected?A.Point-to-pointB.End-to-endC.ThoroughD.Complete event analysisAnswer: B
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EC0-350 Examethical hacking and countermeasures* Exam Number/Code : EC0-350* Exam Name : ethical hacking and countermeasures* Questions and Answers : 339 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-29* Price: $ 125.00
1. System administrators sometimes post questions to newsgroups when they run into technical challenges. As an ethical hacker, you could use the information in newsgroup postings to glean insight into the makeup of a target network. How would you search for these posting using Google search?A. Search in Google using the key search strings “the target company” and “newsgroups”B. Search for the target company name at http://groups.google.comC. Use NNTP websites to search for these postingsD. Search in Google using the key search strings “the target company” and “forums”Answer: B
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COG-205 braindump
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2010年3月26日星期五
JK0-016 exam answers
JK0-016 ExamCompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam* Exam Number/Code : JK0-016* Exam Name : CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam* Questions and Answers : 300 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-27* Price: $ 122.00
Exam : CompTIA JK0-016Title : CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam1. A 100 pair cable is typically used to connect:A. telephony distribution.B. businesses with more than 75 computers.C. security cameras.D. computer labs with more than 20 computers.Answer: A
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Exam : CompTIA JK0-016Title : CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam1. A 100 pair cable is typically used to connect:A. telephony distribution.B. businesses with more than 75 computers.C. security cameras.D. computer labs with more than 20 computers.Answer: A
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jn0-201 exam answers
jn0-201 Examjuniper networks certified internet associate.m(jncia-m)* Exam Number/Code : jn0-201* Exam Name : juniper networks certified internet associate.m(jncia-m)* Questions and Answers : 107 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-27* Price: $ 96.00
Exam : Juniper JN0-201Title : Juniper(r) Networks Certified Internet Associate.m(Jncia-M)
1. Which two routes may be advertised via EBGP? (Choose two.)A.routes that originate on the local router and are injected using policyB.routes that do not originate in the local AS and are learned by OSPFC.routes that originate on the local router and are from protocol aggregateD.routes that are transiting the local router and are from protocol BGPAnswer: AD
2. Router A has a priority of 64, Router B has a priority of 0, and Router C has a priority of 70. Router D now comes online with a priority of 100.Which router is the DIS?A.Router AB.Router BC.Router CD.Router DAnswer: D
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Exam : Juniper JN0-201Title : Juniper(r) Networks Certified Internet Associate.m(Jncia-M)
1. Which two routes may be advertised via EBGP? (Choose two.)A.routes that originate on the local router and are injected using policyB.routes that do not originate in the local AS and are learned by OSPFC.routes that originate on the local router and are from protocol aggregateD.routes that are transiting the local router and are from protocol BGPAnswer: AD
2. Router A has a priority of 64, Router B has a priority of 0, and Router C has a priority of 70. Router D now comes online with a priority of 100.Which router is the DIS?A.Router AB.Router BC.Router CD.Router DAnswer: D
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JN0-342 Practice Test
JN0-342 ExamER, Associate(JNCIA-ER)* Exam Number/Code : JN0-342* Exam Name : ER, Associate(JNCIA-ER)* Questions and Answers : 108 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-27* Price: $ 99.00
Exam : Juniper Networks JN0-342Title : ER, Associate (JNCIA-ER)
1. What are two components essential to link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)A. SPF algorithmB. poison reverseC. reliable floodingD. distributed computationAnswer: AC
2. Which type of route can an OSPF export policy match?A. active routesB. hidden routesC. inactive routesD. any route in the routing tableAnswer: A
Enterprise Router Overview, Management, and ArchitectureDescribe network management features of Enterprise RoutersDefine the portions of the JUNOS software architecture. Include information on protected memory spaces, individual daemon process, and locations where the JUNOS software may operate.List the Enterprise Router Product LineDescribe Transit and Host ProcessingIdentify the difference between packet flow on the M7i/M10i and J-series routersIdentify key differences between the M7i/M10i and J-series routersIdentify Field-Replaceable Units on M7i/M10i and J-series routers
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Exam : Juniper Networks JN0-342Title : ER, Associate (JNCIA-ER)
1. What are two components essential to link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)A. SPF algorithmB. poison reverseC. reliable floodingD. distributed computationAnswer: AC
2. Which type of route can an OSPF export policy match?A. active routesB. hidden routesC. inactive routesD. any route in the routing tableAnswer: A
Enterprise Router Overview, Management, and ArchitectureDescribe network management features of Enterprise RoutersDefine the portions of the JUNOS software architecture. Include information on protected memory spaces, individual daemon process, and locations where the JUNOS software may operate.List the Enterprise Router Product LineDescribe Transit and Host ProcessingIdentify the difference between packet flow on the M7i/M10i and J-series routersIdentify key differences between the M7i/M10i and J-series routersIdentify Field-Replaceable Units on M7i/M10i and J-series routers
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JN0-400 download
JN0-400 ExamEX, Associate (JNCIA-EX)* Exam Number/Code : JN0-400* Exam Name : EX, Associate (JNCIA-EX)* Questions and Answers : 104 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-27* Price: $ 89.00
Exam : Juniper Networks JN0-400Title : EX, Associate (JNCIA-EX)1. You are configuring the voice VLAN feature on an EX-series switch on interface ge-0/0/5.Which configuration would you use?A.ethernet-switching-options { voice-vlan { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}B.ethernet-switching-options { voip { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { member-vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}C.ethernet-switching-options { voip { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}D.ethernet-switching-options { voice-vlan { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { member-vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}Answer: C
2. Which two statements describe the EX 4200 switches? (Choose two.)A.The fan tray used for the EX 4200 switches is not field replaceable.B.The EX 4200 switches can be interconnected to form a single virtual chassis.C.The EX 4200 switches support redundant load-sharing AC power supplies.D.All EX 4200 switches support either partial or full Power over Ethernet (PoE) support.Answer: BC
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Exam : Juniper Networks JN0-400Title : EX, Associate (JNCIA-EX)1. You are configuring the voice VLAN feature on an EX-series switch on interface ge-0/0/5.Which configuration would you use?A.ethernet-switching-options { voice-vlan { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}B.ethernet-switching-options { voip { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { member-vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}C.ethernet-switching-options { voip { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}D.ethernet-switching-options { voice-vlan { interface ge-0/0/5.0 { member-vlan voice-over-ip; forwarding-class expedited-forwarding; } }}Answer: C
2. Which two statements describe the EX 4200 switches? (Choose two.)A.The fan tray used for the EX 4200 switches is not field replaceable.B.The EX 4200 switches can be interconnected to form a single virtual chassis.C.The EX 4200 switches support redundant load-sharing AC power supplies.D.All EX 4200 switches support either partial or full Power over Ethernet (PoE) support.Answer: BC
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JN0-521 dumps
JN0-521 ExamFWV.Associate (JNCIA-FWV)* Exam Number/Code : JN0-521* Exam Name : FWV.Associate (JNCIA-FWV)* Questions and Answers : 116 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-27* Price:$ 99.00
Exam : Juniper JN0-521Title : Juniper(r) FWV.Associate (JNCIA-FWV)1. You are looking at the event log of the responding device and it says,“Rejected an initial Phase 1 packet from an unrecognized peer gateway”What are three likely reasons for the failure? (Choose three.)A.The peer ID is misconfigured.B.The default gateway is missing.C.The preshare keys are mismatched.D.The gateway address is misconfigured.E.The outgoing interface is misconfigured.Answer: ADE
2. Which type of NAT is performed when you implement interface-based NAT?A.source IP address translationB.destination IP address translationC.source IP and port address translationD.destination IP and port address translationAnswer: C
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Exam : Juniper JN0-521Title : Juniper(r) FWV.Associate (JNCIA-FWV)1. You are looking at the event log of the responding device and it says,“Rejected an initial Phase 1 packet from an unrecognized peer gateway”What are three likely reasons for the failure? (Choose three.)A.The peer ID is misconfigured.B.The default gateway is missing.C.The preshare keys are mismatched.D.The gateway address is misconfigured.E.The outgoing interface is misconfigured.Answer: ADE
2. Which type of NAT is performed when you implement interface-based NAT?A.source IP address translationB.destination IP address translationC.source IP and port address translationD.destination IP and port address translationAnswer: C
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jn0-570 practice exam
jn0-570 ExamJN0-570 JNCIS-SSL EXAM* Exam Number/Code : jn0-570* Exam Name : JN0-570 JNCIS-SSL EXAM* Questions and Answers : 150 Q&As* Update Time: 2010-03-27* Price: $ 96.00
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Exam : Juniper Networks JN0-570Title : SSL, Specialist (JNCIS-SSL)1. Which three logs are used within the SA solution? (Choose three.)A. Event logB. System logC. Client-Side logD. User Access logE. Security logAnswer: ACD
2. When conducting meetings with Secure Meeting, your users frequently complain about jitter in the video presentation. How might you attempt to improve performance?A. Ensure that image compression is enabled on the IVE device’s Secure Meeting configuration page.B. Limit the presentation video size to 800×600 resolution on the IVE device’s Secure Meeting configuration page.C. Enable the Secure Meeting acceleration feature with the optional license upgrade.D. Ensure that 32-bit presentations mode is not enabled on the IVE device’s Secure Meeting configuration page.Answer: D
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Exam : Juniper Networks JN0-570Title : SSL, Specialist (JNCIS-SSL)1. Which three logs are used within the SA solution? (Choose three.)A. Event logB. System logC. Client-Side logD. User Access logE. Security logAnswer: ACD
2. When conducting meetings with Secure Meeting, your users frequently complain about jitter in the video presentation. How might you attempt to improve performance?A. Ensure that image compression is enabled on the IVE device’s Secure Meeting configuration page.B. Limit the presentation video size to 800×600 resolution on the IVE device’s Secure Meeting configuration page.C. Enable the Secure Meeting acceleration feature with the optional license upgrade.D. Ensure that 32-bit presentations mode is not enabled on the IVE device’s Secure Meeting configuration page.Answer: D
JNCIA JN0-570 Exam Tips: CertificatesDescribe X.509 certificatesDescribe PKIDescribe certificate revocation listsDescribe OCSP (Online Certification Status Protocol)JNCIA JN0-570 Exam Describe certificate based user authenticationConfigure certificate based user authenticationExplain why to use multiple server certificatesConfigure multiple server certificates
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